I am unable to prove injectivity for the first isomorphic theorem. A website shows the proof as follows: Map: $ϕ(xN) = ψ(x)$ ϕ is injective:
$ϕ(xN)=ϕ(yN)\iff ψ(x) = ψ(y)\iff eH = ψ(x)^{-1} ψ(y) = ψ(x^{-1}) ψ(y) = ψ(x^{-1}y)\iff x^{-1}y\in N \iff xN = yN$
I don't understand how $x^{−1}y ∈ N ⇐⇒ xN = yN$ imply that $\phi$ is injective?
Also, is there an alternative way to show that $\phi$ is injective by concluding that x=y?
Note: N here denotes the kernel of $ψ$
You have $$ϕ(xN) = ϕ(yN)\Longrightarrow xN = yN.$$ So $\phi$ is injective.