If I define a sequence $a_n$: $$ a_1 = \frac{\pi}{4},~~ a_n =\frac{1}{2} \tan(a_{n-1}) $$ and then define a series: $$ \sum_{i=1}^n a_n $$
I can see why it converges, by the comparison test for $n\gt 6$
$a_n < \dfrac{1}{n^2}$ and we know $\dfrac{1}{n^2}$ converges as a p-series so
$a_n$ must converge.
But how do I formally prove it?
Since $\tan''(x)=2\sec^2(x)\tan(x)\ge0$ for $0\le x\le\frac\pi4$, $\tan(x)$ is convex for $0\le x\le\frac\pi4$. Therefore, for $0\le x\le\frac\pi4$, $$ \tan(x)\le\frac4\pi x\tag1 $$ Inductively, we get $$ a_n\le\frac\pi4\left(\frac2\pi\right)^{n-1}\tag2 $$ Thus, the series converges by comparison to a geometric series with ratio between $-1$ and $1$.