How can we prove for $a$, $b$ and $c$ positive integers that if
$$\gcd(a,b)=\gcd(b,c)=\gcd(a,c)=d$$ then $$\gcd(a,b,c)=d$$
For $a$ and $b$ co-prime numbers, $\gcd(a,b)=1$, means that the pairs $(b,c)$ and $(a,c)$ are also co-prime numbers, then from the $\gcd$ commutativity and associativity:
$$\gcd(a,b,c)=\gcd(\gcd(a,b),c)=\gcd(\gcd(a,c),b)=\gcd(a,gcd(b,c))$$ $$\gcd(a,b,c)=\gcd(1,c)=\gcd(1,b)=\gcd(a,1)=1$$ This is correct because if $a$, $b$ and $c$ are mutually prime numbers their $\gcd$ is $1$, is this a special case only and we can found counterexamples for the above claim?
Let us merely assume that $\gcd(a,b)=d$ and that $d$ divides $c.$ Clearly, $d$ is a common divisor of $a,b,$ and $c.$ Let $e$ be any other common divisor of $a,b,$ and $c.$ Since $e$ is a common divisor of $a$ and $b,$ it follows that $e$ divides $\gcd(a,b)=d.$ Hence $d$ is the greatest common divisor of $a,b,$ and $c.$