I had the first completed but when doing its converse, since there is no CQ rule, I do not know where to proceed. Please help
2026-03-29 13:22:41.1774790561
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Proof in FOL with no CQ rule
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As usual the key is to work backwards.
To introduce the universal, assume an arbitrary variable, $a$, then derive $P(a)\to\lnot Q(a)$.
To introduce that conditional, assume $P(a)$ then derive $\lnot Q(a)$.
To introduce that negation, assume $Q(a)$, then derive a contradiction.
To derive that contradiction under the assumptions of $\lnot\exists x~(P(x)\land Q(x))$, $P(a)$, and $Q(a)$, well...

$\lnot \exists x (P(x) \land Q(x))$ --- premise
$P(a)$ --- assumed [a]
$Q(a)$ --- assumed [b]
$\exists x (P(x) \land Q(x))$
$\bot$
$\lnot Q(a)$
$P(a) \to \lnot Q(a)$