How is it possible to prove that $P \Leftrightarrow Q$ is the same as $ (\lnot P \lor Q) \land (\lnot Q \lor P)$ using logic laws?
2026-04-03 16:27:25.1775233645
Proof in logic that $P \Leftrightarrow Q$ is the same as $ (\lnot P \lor Q) \land (\lnot Q \lor P)$
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$$\begin{align} p \iff q & \equiv (p \rightarrow q) \land (q\rightarrow p)\\ \\ & \equiv (\lnot p \lor q) \land (\lnot q \lor p)\end{align}$$
The first step is definitional. In the second step, I use, twice, the fact that $$a \rightarrow b \equiv \lnot a \lor b$$