Proof Leibniz pi series using Wallis product or viceversa

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Hi I am trying to get a smart way to connect this two well known expressions for $\pi$:

Leibniz serie:

$$\frac{\pi}{4}=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{2n-1}}$$

Wallis product:

$$\frac{\pi}{2}=\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{(2n)^2}{(2n-1)(2n+1)}}$$

and only saw this method through Brouckner's continued fraction:

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/BF00348349

It seems a little bit too tricky to be the simplest way to stablish such a connection. Any advice will be valuable.

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A few ideas (may be)

A small typo in the Wallis product $$\frac{\pi}{\color{red}{2}}=\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}{\frac{(2n)^2}{(2n-1)(2n+1)}}$$

Now, we could think from $$\frac{(2n)^2}{(2n-1)(2n+1)}=1-\frac{1}{2 (2 n+1)}+\frac{1}{2 (2 n-1)}$$ and consider the logarithm and then some Taylor series after some value of $n$