Let us consider an alternating series $~~\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^na_n$. Now if $~~\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n=0~~$ and $~~(a_n)_{n=1}^{\infty}~~$ is monotone decreasing then by Leibniz test the given series is convergent. But if Leibniz test fails, let $~~\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} a_n=\infty~~$ or $~\neq 0,~~$ what should we conclude about the series $~~\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^na_n$. I know, the necessary condition for a positive series to be convergent is limit of the tail tends to zero. But the given series is not positive, and modulus of the a series cannot determine the convergence of the actual series, for this we can take $~~~\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{1}n.$
So, is there any proof or any discussing paper that, an alternating series will diverge if it fails the Leibniz test? I know the convergence proof (Leibniz test proof), but don't know about the converse.
Please help me to solve this.
Let's define the partial sum $\displaystyle S_n=\sum\limits_{i=1}^n u_i$.
If the series is convergent then $\ S_n\to \ell\ $, and we get automatically $\ u_n=S_n-S_{n-1}\to \ell-\ell=0$
By contrapositive, if $u_n$ does not converge to $0$, the series diverges.
Of course the conclusion is the same for an alternated series since $|a_n|=|\underbrace{(-1)^na_n}_{u_n}|\to 0$
For the monotonically decreasing part, you can consider this classical counter-example:
$\sum \dfrac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}+(-1)^n}$ is divergent (see a proof here)
while the a priori equivalent series $\sum \dfrac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}$ is convergent via the Leibniz test.