I found this equation involving Stirling numbers of the second kind on Math World: $$\sum\limits_{m=1}^n (-1)^m(m-1)!\,S(n,m)=0$$ for every integer $n \geq 2$. Here, $S(n, m)$ denotes the appropriate Stirling number of the second kind (i.e., the number of set partitions of $\left\{1,2,\ldots,n\right\}$ into $k$ parts).
However, I do not know why this is true. I am looking for a proof or an explanation of this equation.
We have the identity, for $n\geq 2$, $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}S\left(n,k\right)\left(k-1\right)!z^{k}=\left(-1\right)^{n}\textrm{Li}_{1-n}\left(1+1/z\right) $$ where $\textrm{Li}_{n}\left(z\right) $ is the polylogarithm function, then if we take $z=-1 $ we have $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}S\left(n,k\right)\left(k-1\right)!\left(-1\right)^{k}=\left(-1\right)^{n}\textrm{Li}_{1-n}\left(0\right)=0. $$