I'm trying to prove this : $\frac{a}b=\frac{c}d⟺\frac{a+b}{a−b}=\frac{c+d}{c−d}$
but going from $\frac{a}b=\frac{c}d$
I already proved it backwards
$\frac{a+b}{a−b}=\frac{c+d}{c−d}$ I multiply each side by (a-b)(c-d)
$ac-ad+bc-bd = ac - bc + ad - bd$ so $2bc=2ad$ which by dividing both sides by $2bd$ gives us : $$\frac{a}b=\frac{c}d$$
any ideas how to proceed ?
Edit : this equivalence only works when $a\neq b $ and $c \neq d$.
Suppose that $a \neq b, c\neq d$, and $b,d \neq 0$. Then, $\frac ab \neq 1$. We are asked to assume that $\frac ab = \frac cd$.
Now, we can do the following:
$$ \frac ab = \frac cd \implies \frac ab + 1 = \frac cd + 1 \implies \frac{a+b}b = \frac{c+d}d\\ \frac ab = \frac cd \implies \frac ab - 1 = \frac cd - 1 \implies \frac{a-b}{b} = \frac{c-d}{d}\\ $$
Divide the first equation by the second: $$ \frac{\frac{a+b}{b}}{\frac{a-b}b} = \frac{\frac{c+d}d}{\frac{c-d}d} \implies \frac{a+b}{a-b} = \frac{c+d}{c-d} $$
This is a proof, provided the conditions that are given in the starting hold true.
On a side note, I think this is called the componendo-dividendo equality (I may be wrong).