The proof of the theorem :
given a set $E$ and any family of sets $\{A_i\}$; $\quad E-\bigcap_i A_i = \bigcup_i (E-A_i)$
has been left to the reader in Basic Concepts of Mathematics by Elias Zakon. I have attempted the proof but, as I am inexperienced in proof writing, I am not are if there are faults in my logic, or areas where I can be more succinct or clearer. My proof is:
$x \in E- \bigcap_i A_i \\x \in E \quad\text{but} \quad x\notin \bigcap_i A_i \\ \text{As $x\in E$ but $x$ is not in all the sets $A_i$, therefore $x$ is in some of the sets $A_i$} \\ x \in \bigcup_i (E-A_i) \quad\text{therefore $ \ E-\bigcap_i A_i = \bigcup_i (E-A_i)$}$
This is not true. It could be that $x$ isn't in any of the $A_i$. The conclusion is supposed to be "Therefore there is at least one $k$ with $x\notin A_k$". Now, since $x\in E$ and $x\notin A_k$, we have $x\in E-A_k$. Finally, apply the definition of union.
Once you've done that, you've proven that $$ E-\bigcap_i A_i\subseteq \bigcup_i(E-A_i) $$ It remains to show the opposite inclusion. You do that basically the same way. Take an $x\in \bigcup_i(E-A_i)$, and reason that we must have $x\in E-\bigcap_i A_i$, or by being careful pointing out that each line in your argument is actually an equivalence, so the argument works both ways.