I have a problem with following equality: $$\sum_{k=0}^{m}k^n = \sum_{k=0}^{n}k!{m+1\choose k+1} \left\{^n_k \right\} $$
And I would like to use induction in following way: Base: $$ m = n $$ And: $$ (m, n) => (m + 1, n) \\ (m, n) => (m, n + 1) $$
But When I try prove to base I get into trouble: $$ \ \ \ m = n $$ $$\sum_{k=0}^{m} k^m=\sum_{k=0}^m k!{m+1\choose k+1} \left\{ ^m_k \right\} $$ I can't see why this equality is true. Could you help me ?
Your identity simply follows from the well-known fact that $$ x^m = \sum_{j=0}^{m}j!{m\brace j}\binom{x}{j}$$ (see, for example, Graham-Knuth-Patashnik, p.262, or this survey by our beloved Mike Spivey)
by summing over $x$, since: $$\sum_{x=0}^{m}\binom{x}{j}=\binom{m+1}{j+1}.$$