I am studying Terence Tao's Analysis I, 3rd ed., on my own.
I am trying to prove the following lemma:
Lemma 2.2.10. Let $a$ be a positive number. Then there exists exactly one natural number $b$ such that $b\mathrm{++} = a$.
Relevant definitions:
- A positive number is a natural number ($\mathbb{N} = \{0, 1, 2, \dots\}$) that is not equal to $0$.
- $b\mathrm{++}$ denotes the successor of $b$, for $b \in \mathbb{N}$.
Axioms related to natural numbers:
- $0 \in \mathbb{N}$
- If $n \in \mathbb{N}$, then $n\mathrm{++} \in \mathbb{N}$
- We define $1:= 0\mathrm{++}$, $2:= (0\mathrm{++})\mathrm{++})$, etc.
- For each $n \in \mathbb{N}$, $n\mathrm{++} \neq 0$.
- If $n\mathrm{++} = m\mathrm{++}$, then $n = m$.
- Let $P(n)$ be a property regarding $n \in \mathbb{N}$. Then suppose both (a) $P(0)$ is true and (b) $P(n)$ is true implies that $P(n\mathrm{++})$ is true for each $n\in \mathbb{N}$. Then $P(n)$ is true for each $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Please let me know if more information is needed.
I'm trying to see if there's anything wrong with my proof below of the Lemma for existence. In particular, I'm confused by the answer here.
Proof. For $a = 0$, the statement is vacuously true.
Suppose for some $k$ positive that there exists a $b \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $b\mathrm{++} = k$. Then, it follows that $(b\mathrm{++})\mathrm{++} = k\mathrm{++}$. Since $b \in \mathbb{N}$, it follows that $c = b\mathrm{++} \in \mathbb{N}$ by an axiom. Hence, there exists a $c \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $c\mathrm{++} = k\mathrm{++}$.
Let $P(a)$ be the claim $$P(a): \forall a \text{ positive } \exists b \in \mathbb{N} \text{ with } b\mathrm{++} = a\text{.}$$ Consider $P(0)$. By definition $0$ is not positive, so the proof is vacuously true.
Suppose $P(0)$ is true. By definition, $1 = 0\mathrm{++}$, and $0 \in \mathbb{N}$, so there is a $b \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $b\mathrm{++} = 1$. Hence $P(1)$ is true.
Now suppose $P(k)$ is true for for some $k$ positive. Then there exists a $b \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $b\mathrm{++} = k$. Then, it follows that $(b\mathrm{++})\mathrm{++} = k\mathrm{++}$. Since $b \in \mathbb{N}$, it follows that $c = b\mathrm{++} \in \mathbb{N}$ by an axiom. Hence, there exists a $c \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $c\mathrm{++} = k\mathrm{++}$.
By induction, existence holds.