I am asked:
Let $f:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be given by $f(x)=e^x+x$.
Prove that $f$ is injective.
Here's my attempt:
Proof: (Contrapositive) Assume $x_1,x_2\in \mathbb{R}, x_1\neq x_2$. So if $x_1\neq x_2$, then either $x_1<x_2$ or $x_2<x_1$.
If $x_1<x_2$, then $x_2=x_1+a$ for some $a\in \mathbb{R}^+$. Thus, $e^{x_1}+x_1<e^{x_1+a}+(x_1+a)\implies e^{x_1}+x_1<e^{x_1}*e^a+x_1+a\implies \frac{e^{x_1}}{e^{x_1}}<\frac{e^{x_1}*e^a}{e^{x_1}}+\frac{x_1}{e^{x_1}}\implies 1<e^a+\frac{x_1}{e^{x_1}}\implies 0<e^a+\frac{x_1}{e^{x_1}}-1$. Since $a\in \mathbb{R}^+$, $e^a\in \mathbb{R}^+,e^a>1$. Thus, this inequality must be true, so when $x_1<x_2$, $e^{x_1}+x_1<e^{x_2}+x_2\implies f(x_1)\neq f(x_2)$.
Alternatively, if $x_2<x_1$, then $x_1=x_2+b$ for some $b\in \mathbb{R}^+$ Thus, $e^{x_2}+x<e^{x_2+b}+(x_2+b)\implies e^{x_2}+x_2<e^{x_2}*e^b+x_2+b\implies 1<e^b+\frac{x_2}{e^{x_1}}\implies 0<e^b+\frac{x_2}{e^{x_2}}-1$. Since $b\in \mathbb{R}^+$, $e^b\in \mathbb{R}^+,e^b>1$. Thus, this inequality must be true, so when $x_2<x_1$, $e^{x_2}+x_2<e^{x_1}+x_1\implies f(x_1)\neq f(x_2)$.
In either case, $x_1\neq x_2\implies f(x_1)\neq f(x_2)$, which is the contrapositive of the definition of injectivity. Therefore, the function $f$ is injective. $\blacksquare$
Did I miss anything? Thanks!
$$f(x)=e^x+x \implies f'(x)=e^x+1>0$$
Thus the function f(x) is strictly increasing.
Hence, f(x) is one-to-one.