is there a proof for the lagrange inversion of taylor series? The formula is given in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lagrange_inversion_theorem#Theorem_statement
The proof cannot be found in the sources provided, nor in the wolfram reference, nor anywhere i have searched on the internet (including lagrange's original paper). I have searched many books on analysis and still couldnt find a proof for the formula. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks
Whittaker & Watson, A Course of Modern Analysis. Section 7.3 is about relevant expansions, with Lagrange inversion on page 133 in a somewhat different form.