Is the ensuing proof correct. If it is 'correct' could it be improved or simplfied?
Let $A$ be the union of the sets of subsets of $[n-1]$ with length $k$ and length $k-1$. Let $B$ be the set of subsets of $[n]$ with length $k$.
Define a bijection $f: A \longrightarrow B$ given by
$$f(X) = \begin{cases} X, & \text{if |X| = k} \\ X \cup \{n\}, & \text{if |X| = k-1} \end{cases} $$
To prove $f$ is bijective we will show it is both injective and surjective.
Consider distinct $x,y \in A$ applying $f$ to $x$ and $y$ will result in either $x$, $y$ or $x \cup \{n\}$, $y \cup \{n\}$ respectively. Since x and y are distinct $x \cup \{n\} \neq y \cup \{n\}$, it is also clear $x \neq y \cup \{n\}$ and $y \neq x \cup \{n\}$. We proven by contrapositive that $f$ is injective.
consider $x \in B$ either $x$ contains n or not. If $x$ contains $n$ simply remove $n$ and $x$ becomes a subsets of length $k-1$, since A contains all subsets of [n] with length $k-1$ there is always an element that can map to $x$. If $x$ contains $n$ then it is mapped by itself. Therefore $f$ is surjective.
We have shown a bijection from $A$ to $B$ hence $|A| = |B|$. Since $|A| = {n \choose k}$ and $|B| = {n-1 \choose k} + {n-1 \choose k-1}$ we have proven Pascals Theorem.
Since you are open to a simpler proof, why not just use the Combinatorial expansions?
${n-1 \choose k} + {n-1 \choose k-1} = \frac{(n-1)!}{k!(n-k-1)!} + \frac{(n-1)!}{(k-1)!(n-k)!} = \frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k-1)!(k-1)!} (\frac{1}{k} + \frac{1}{n-k}) = \frac{(n-1)!}{(n-k-1)!(k-1)!} (\frac{n}{k(n-k)}) = \frac{n(n-1)!}{(k(k-1)!)((n-k)(n-k-1)!)} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$