I have a problem to prove the differentiability of:
$$\ \sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n+1}\ln(1+\frac{x}{n}) ~~~~x\in[0, \infty)$$
I know that I have to prove the convergency, but I don't know how to deal with it. I was thinking of:
$$\ \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^{n}\ln(1+\frac{x}{n-1}) $$
In order to use Leibnitz criterion however I don't think that it would work. Maybe I have to separate that to sequences for even and odd n? Additionaly, $\ (-1)^n $ confuses me as it comes to differentiation. I would appreciate your suggestions.
Hints: Consider $\sum (-1)^{n+1} [\ln (1+\frac x n) -\frac x n]$. Use the fact that $\frac {\ln (1+t)-t} {t^{2}} \to -\frac 1 2$ as $t \to 0$ to show that this series converges uniformy on $[0,A]$ for any $A$. Hence the original series converges uniformly iff $\sum (-1)^{n+1} \frac x n$ does. Since $\sum (-1)^{n+1} \frac 1 n$ converges we have proved that the given series is uniformly convergent on $[0,A]$. Next consider the differentiated series $\sum (-1)^{n+1} \frac 1 {n+x}$. Once again add and subtract $\sum (-1)^{n+1} \frac 1 {n}$ to show that the differentiated series also converges uniformly on $[0,A]$ for any $A$. This implies that the sum of the original series is differentiable.
I am using the following elementary fact:
If $s_n(x) \to f(x)$ uniformly on compact sets and If $s_n'(x) \to g(x)$ uniformly on compact sets then $f$ is differentiable and $f'(x)=g(x)$.