I was going through a stats book yesterday when I saw the normalisation of the binomial distribution stated. I was wondering if anyone had a proof of that please? $$ \sum^{n}_{r=0}p^{r}(1-p)^{(n-r)}\cdot{^{n}C_{r}}=1. $$
I can see how this simplifies to: $$ n!(1-p)^n\sum_{r=0}^{n}\frac{p^r}{(1-p)^r}\frac{1}{r!(n-r)!}. $$
I've also seen proofs for $$ \sum^{n}_{r=0}{^{n}C_{r}}=2^{n}, $$ but not one for the whole thing. Can anyone help please?
To see this just recall the binomial theorem. For $n\in\mathbb{N}_0$ then $$(x+y)^n=\sum\limits_{k=0}^n{n\choose k}x^ky^{n-k}.$$ So here let $x=p$ and $y=1-p$ and your expression will simplify to $$\sum\limits_{r=0}^np^r(1-p)^{n-r}{n\choose r}=(p+(1-p))^n=1^n=1.$$ Hope this helps.