The present statement of the theorem is as follows:
Let $A$ be a set with an element $a \in A$, and let $\psi\colon A \to A$ be a map. There exists a unique map $f\colon \mathbb{N} \to A$ with $f(1) = a$ such that
$$ f(n+1) = \psi(f(n)) $$
for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
My definition of the natural numbers takes $1$ to be the initial element.
The proof in my textbook considers the set $\Gamma$ of all subsets $U \subseteq \mathbb{N} \times A$ that satisfy
- $(1, a) \in U$,
- $(n, b) \in U \Rightarrow (n+1, \psi(b)) \in U$.
Letting $F := \bigcap_{U \in \Gamma} U$, we show that $F$ is the graph of a function. It is easy to show by induction that for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ there exists at least one $b \in A$ such that $(n, b) \in F$. However, proving that this $b$ is unique is left to the reader, and I haven't been successful in finding a proof for it.
It is easy to prove it by induction: