Show that if $x_n \le y_n \le z_n$ for all $n \in \mathbb N$, and if $lim(x_n) = lim (z_n) = l$, then $lim (y_n)= l$ as well.
Proof. Since $lim(x_n) = lim (z_n) = l$. Then follows that $|x_n -l| < \frac{\epsilon}{2}$ whenever $n \ge N_1$ and similarly $|l-z_n | < \frac{\epsilon}{2}$ whenever $n \ge N_2$. Choose $max \{ N_1,N_2\}$ and by the triangle inequality we get $$|x_n - z_n| \le|x_n -l|+ |l-z_n| \lt \epsilon .$$
since $$|x_n - z_n| \lt \epsilon $$ it follows that $x_n=z_n$ for sufficiently large $n \ge \max\{N_1, N_2\}$. Hence it follows that $x_n=y_n= z_n$ (from the fact that $x_n=z_n$ and $x_n \le y_n \le z_n$). And therefore $lim(x_n) = lim (y_n) = l$.
Question 1: Is my attempt at the proof correct? If not why not? Also if not can you give a correct version or atleast a few hints?
Question 2: I use the property that $|a-b|< \epsilon$ is equivalent to $a=b$ but it doesn't sit well with me below that $x_n=z_n$ since $(x_n), (z_n)$ could have different elements and still converge at the same value.) Why am I getting contradictory results here?
Thanks in advance.
I really appreciate this site helping me learn how to write proofs in real analysis :)
Firstly, $z_n$ does not equal $x_n$ for sufficiently large $n$. For an answer to your second question $\frac{1}{n}$ and $\frac{1}{2n}$ both converge to zero, but they are never equal for a given $n$. Use the definition of convergence instead. What do you need to show that $\lim_{n\to \infty} y_n=l$?