I'm studying proof of the uniqueness of the Laplace Transform and I have some problems with understanding it.
Here is the proof.
Why can we change $u^{n}$ for polynomial $p(u)$? What does it mean?
I'm studying proof of the uniqueness of the Laplace Transform and I have some problems with understanding it.
Here is the proof.
Why can we change $u^{n}$ for polynomial $p(u)$? What does it mean?
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Hint:
Let $p(u)=\sum_{n=0}^k a_n u^n.$ Now use $(1)$ of the proof and linearity of integral.