Let
$$ S_n^2= \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n X_i - \overline{X} $$
I'm looking for a clear simple proof of the variance of this just for personal knowledge to derive the $MSE$ later on any input would be appreciated.
Let
$$ S_n^2= \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n X_i - \overline{X} $$
I'm looking for a clear simple proof of the variance of this just for personal knowledge to derive the $MSE$ later on any input would be appreciated.
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Ok, I am assuming you know that the MSE is the (biased) sample variance: $MSE=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (estimate_i-actual_i)^2$ when you replace your "actual" by the sample mean and the "estiamte" by your sample data. Also, your notation is a little ambiguous, as its not clear if the sample average is inside or outside of the summation. Numerically, it doesn't matter, so I will address both:
1) If $\overline{X}$ is outside of the summation, then note that $\frac{1}{n} \sum X_i = \overline{X}$. Therefore, your formula always evaluates to zero, so it has $0$ variance.
2) If $\overline{X}$ is inside the summation, then you get $\frac{1}{n} \sum X_i -\frac{1}{n} n\overline{X} = \frac{1}{n} \sum X_i -\overline{X}$, which is just case (1) above, so again you get zero.
The answer to your question is that the expression has zero variance.