Use monotone convergence theorem to prove that $e(x):=\lim_{n\to\infty}(1+x/n)^n$ exists for all real $x$. Then show that $e(-x):=\lim_{n\to\infty}(1-x/n)^n=1/e(x)$.
I'm struggling to use monotone convergence theorem with this; obviously $e(x)$ is monotone when $x>0$, but it's not when $-n<x<0$. So now what?
Further, what makes the second part so difficult is that we can't use any derivatives, logarithms, prior knowledge of $e^x$, etc. We have to do this using just the Bernoulli inequality and finite geometric series, or the regular definition of convergence. I'm just not making any progress and I don't understand how I'm supposed to do this.
How can you show both of these things?
In THIS ANSWER, I showed using Bernoulli's Inequality that the sequence $e_n(x)$, defined by $e_n(x)=\left(1+\frac xn\right)^n$ increases monotonically for $x>-n$.
Moreover, we have from the Binomial Theorem that
$$\begin{align} |e_n(x)|&=\left|\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}\left(\frac xn\right)^k\right|\\\\ &\le\sum_{k=0}^n \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)\left(1-\frac{2}{n}\right)\cdots \left(1-\frac{k-1}{n}\right) \frac{|x|^k}{k!}\\\\ &\le \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{|x|^k}{k!} \end{align}$$
It is easy to show (e.g., apply the ratio test) that the series $\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{|x|^k}{k!}$ converges for all $|x|$. Hence, we have
$$0\le \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{|x|^k}{k!}\le \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{|x|^k}{k!}<\infty$$
Inasmuch as $e_n(x)$ is monotonically increasing and bounded above, then it converges, as was to be shown!
Let $e(x)=\lim_{n\to \infty}e_n(x)$. Then, noting that
$$1\ge e_n(x)e_n(-x)=\left(1-\frac{x^2}{n^2}\right)^n\overbrace{\ge}^{\text{Bernoulli's Inequality}} 1-\frac{x^2}{n}$$
and applying the squeeze theorem, we find that
$$\lim_{n\to \infty}e_n(x)e_n(-x)=1$$
Therefore, we conclude that
$$e(x)e(-x)=1$$
and we are done!