In my topology textbook (Bert Mendelson's) it is stated that if $C$ is a subspace of two distinct larger spaces $X$ and $Y$, then the relative topology of $C$ is the same whether we regard it as a subspace of $X$ or $Y$.
In an attempt to prove this, regard $C$ as a subspace of $X$ and suppose $S$ is an open subset of $C$. Then $$S = S' \cap C$$ for some open subset $S'$ of $X$. Now I'm not sure how to continue; proving that $S' \cap Y$ is an open subset of $Y$ would do the job, since then $$S' \cap Y \cap C = S$$ is in the topology of $C$ regarded as a subspace of $Y$, but I don't see a way to prove this.
Can anyone help me with this proof? Can $S' \cap Y$ be shown to be open in $Y$ or should I take a completely different approach?
Thanks in advance!
Following the discussion in the comments I'll assume the following situation: We have a superspace $Z$ such that $X,Y \subseteq Z$ have the subspace topology w.r.t. $Z$ and $C \subseteq X \cap Y$.
Now $C$ can inherit the subspace topology of $X$ or of $Y$, but this does not matter, because in the end it's just the subspace topology from $Z$.
If $S \subseteq C$ is open "via $X$" then $S = S_X \cap C$ with $S_X$ open in $X$, so really, $S_X = O \cap X$ where $O$ is open in $Z$. Hence $S = (O \cap X) \cap C = O \cap C$ (as $X \cap C = C$) and so $S$ is open as a subspace of $Z$. Moreover, $S = O \cap C = O \cap (C \cap Y) = (O \cap Y) \cap C$ where $O \cap Y$ is open in $Y$ (by definition of the subspace topology on $Y$) and so $S$ is also open "via $Y$". This argument is entirely symmetrical, so indeed it does not matter via which subspace $X$ or $Y$ we endow $C$ with a subspace topology. The common superspace enforces the consistency, as it were.