Ok, there's no problem in defining a binomial coefficient the way it this:
$$\binom {a} {b} = \frac{a!}{b!(a-b)!}$$
I can also prove to myself that if I have $n$ elements, like: $\{a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_n\}$ then the ways I can permute this, in $p$ places, this way:
$$\frac{n!}{(n-p)!}$$
I've also read that the combination formula is like this because we divide the many ways we can permute by the number of permutations. I've been able to conjecture this in my drawings, but I couldn't generalize it, so I wanted to know if there's a good way to picture it.
For combinations, you don't care about the order. All the different orders that select the same $p$ items out of $n$ are considered equivalent. How many ways are there to select a set of $p$? Precisely the number of permutations of $p$ items, because that is the number of different orders you might select them. The number of combinations is then $${n \choose p}=\frac {n!}{(n-p)!p!}$$