Proof that the finite product of nonempty sets is nonempty without axiom of choice from ZF

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How do you prove that for $X_{i} \neq \emptyset$, $i \in \{1,...,n\}$ that $\prod_{i=1}^{n} X_{i} \neq \emptyset$ only using the ZF axioms but not the Axiom of Choice? I would like to see a rigorous proof. It would be nice if someone could direct me to a book containing such a proof.

EDIT: I am looking for literature where this is proved STRICTLY from the ZF axioms.

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The proof is simple enough that you don't need a book. You just prove it by induction. The base case (one set) is trivial, and the inductive case is not much harder, using the fact that $$\prod_{i = 1}^{n+1} X_i \cong \left (\prod_{i=1}^n X_i\right ) \times X_{n+1}.$$