I'm having difficult proving this.
As a hint the exercise to prove first, that if $a\lneqq \pm 1$ satisfies $a \equiv 3 \pmod4$, then exist $p$ prime, $p \equiv 3 \pmod 4$ such $p\mid4$. But I'm not really getting for what purpose can this be used.
I'm having difficult proving this.
As a hint the exercise to prove first, that if $a\lneqq \pm 1$ satisfies $a \equiv 3 \pmod4$, then exist $p$ prime, $p \equiv 3 \pmod 4$ such $p\mid4$. But I'm not really getting for what purpose can this be used.
On
Use Euclid's proof showing that there are infinitely many primes, i.e., find an Euclidean polynomial you can use for your arithmetic progression $l \mod k$. Since $l^2\equiv 1 \mod k$ such an Euclidean polynomial exists - see http://www.mast.queensu.ca/~murty/murty-thain2.pdf how to do it (in particular, on page one, the case $4n+3$ is given, see [5]). For $8n+1$ see Infinitely many primes of the form $8n+1$.
On
Does this work?
This is a modification of Euclid’s proof. Let $p_1,p_2,…,p_k$ be the only 3 mod 4 primes. Consider two cases : (I) $k$ is odd Then notice $p_1p_2…p_k+4$ is a 3 mod 4 number, and in particular not divisible by any of the $p_i$s we have. Then it must be a product of some 1 mod 4 primes for it to be not a 3 mod 4 prime itself. But product of 1 mod 4 primes is always 1 mod 4, so not possible. (II) $k$ is even This is slightly trickier. Consider $p_1p_2…p_{k-1}+2^x$ for some $x \geq 2$. Again, this is 3 mod 4. I claim we can choose $x$ so that this is not divisible by $p_k$. Suppose not, then $2^{a+1} \equiv{2^{a}} \pmod{p_k}$,but theb 2 is congruent 1 mod p so 1 is divisible by p_k, which is absurd.
If there are only finitely many primes $\equiv 3 \pmod 4$, take the product of them and denote that product by $a$. Now look at $2a + 1$, and try to deduce a contradiction.