Below is a lemma from John Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds.
Suppose $M$ is a $1$-manifold endowed with a regular CW decomposition. We want to show that every $0$-cell of $M$ is a boundary point of exactly two $1$-cells.
I cannot understand a line from the proof, namely:
It can be shown that the boundary of every $1$-cell of $M$ consists of exactly two $0$-cells. Now, suppose $v$ is a $0-$cell of $M$. Then why are there only finitely many $1$-cells that have $v$ as a boundary point?


If a 0-cell has no 1-cells attached, this point has no open set around it homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$ since it every small enough open set is a point. If a 0-cell has a single 1-cell attached, then every small enough open neighborhood looks like $[0,\infty)$ (since otherwise it would be attached on both ends by a 1-cell but this is not regular) which you can show is not homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$. If you have two or more 1-cells attached, you are a wedge of more than 2 copies of $[0,\infty)$ which can be shown to not be homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$.