Theorem. Let $M, N, L$ be sets. Then the following assertions hold:
(1) $M \cap N = N \cap M$
(2) $M \cup N = N \cup M$
Proof is left as an exercise.
My attempt:
(1) $\forall x: x \in M \cap N \implies x \in M \land x \in N \implies x \in N \cap M \implies N \cap M $
(2) $\forall x : x \in M \cup N \implies x \in M \lor x \in N \implies x \in N \cup M \implies N \cup M$
Is this right or am I either being redundant or jumping to conclusions?
Liesen, J., Mehrmann, V. 2015. Linear Algebra. Berlin, Germany.: Springer.
Showing set equality (often) comes down to showing that each is a subset of the other. I’ll show one direction. You can prove the other directions.
1) Let $x\in M\cap N$. Then $x\in M,N$. Then $x\in N\cap M$. Thus, $M\cap N \subset N\cap M$.
2) Let $x\in M\cup N$. Then $x\in M$ or $x\in N$. Then $x\in N\cup M$. Thus, $M\cup N \subset N\cup M$.