Theorem: $ f:A \to B$ and $g: B \to C$ are functions and $H \subset C$. Then prove that :
$(g\circ f)^{-1}(H) = f^{-1}(g^{-1}(H))$
Proof:
For some $x \in A$, $(g\circ f)(x) = h$ for some $h \in H$
Then: $f^{-1}g^{-1}(h) = f^{-1}g^{-1}((g\circ f)(x))$
$\iff$ $f^{-1}g^{-1}(g(f(x))$
Since $g^{-1}g(f(x))=f(x)$ by property of inverses
$\iff$ $f^{-1}(f(x))$
$\iff$ $x$
This implies $(g\circ f)^{-1}(H)$ = $f^{-1}g^{-1}(H)$
Is this proof correct? Also, is my usage of $\iff$ correct or would $\implies$ be more appropriate? If yes, then why?
Thank you.
I think that you are mixing the definition of $g^{-1}$. It is not the inverse of the function $g$, but you are working with preimages. You need to prove both inclusions.
For the first one, suppose that $x\in (g\circ f)^{-1}(H)$. Then, by definition, $g(f(x))\in H$. That is $f(x)\in g^{-1}(H)$, so $x\in f^{-1}(g^{-1}(H))$.
The other inclusion is proved similarly. Tell me if you do not understand something.