Proof verification of a number theory problem involving sequences.

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$\textbf{Question:}$Does there exist an infinite sequence of integers $a_1, a_2, . . . $ such that $gcd(a_m, a_n) = 1 $ if and only if $|m - n| = 1$?

$\textbf{My solution:}$Suppose we have a $n$ element sequence that satisfies the condition.say $a_1,\cdots,a_n$. Now take $n-1$ distinct primes that divides none of the elements of this sequence.call the primes $p_1,\cdots,p_{n-1}$

Then the sequence $a_1p_1,\cdots,a_{n-1}p_{n-1},a_n$ also satisfies the condition. Now,simply take $a_{n+1}=p_1....p_{n-1}$. Then $a_1p_1,\cdots,a_{n-1}p_{n-1},a_n,a_{n+1}$ satisfies the condition.Hence,we can always increase the size of the sequence.

In addition $a,b$ with $(a,b)=1$ is a two element sequence that satisfies the condition.Hence we can form an infinite sequence that satisfies the given conditions.

If there is any flaw in my argument do tell me.

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As has been pointed out, you show the existsnece of arbitrarily long finite sequences. To construct an infintie sequence, you must come up with a construction that leaves the old terms unchanged.

This should work: $$ a_n=p_{2n-1}p_{2n}\prod_{1\le i< 2n-3\atop i\equiv n\pmod 2}p_{i}$$ as $a_n$ and $a_{n-1}$ have no prime in common whereas one of $p_{2m-1},p_{2m}$ divides $a_n$ if $1\le m<n-1$.