Proof with Möbius function, divisor function and little omega function

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For all natural numbers n, show

$\sum_{k|n}$$\mu$(k)d(k) = (-1)$^{\omega(n)}$

where

$\omega$(n) := $\sum_{p|n}$1

$\omega$(1) = 0

$\mu$(n) is the Möbius function and d(n) is the divisor function

So I know the $\omega$(.) function is the sum of all distinct primes of n, but this problem doesn't make sense to me. The RHS will always be $\pm$1 but the LHS seems like it could be other values since d(n) can be greater than 1.

Any pointers or solutions would be much appreciated!

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In response to query by OP we observe that with $g(n)$ multiplicative we have

$$\sum_{d|n} g(d) = \prod_{p^v||n} (g(1)+g(p)+g(p^2)+\cdots+g(p^v)).$$

Here we have $g(n) = \mu(n) d(n)$ and with $\mu(n)$ zero when $n$ is not squarefree this becomes

$$\sum_{d|n} g(d) = \prod_{p^v||n} (g(1)+g(p)).$$

Observe that $g(1) = \mu(1)d(1) = 1$ and $g(p) = \mu(p) d(p) = (-1)\times 2$ so we get

$$\sum_{d|n} g(d) = \prod_{p^v||n} (1+(-1)\times 2) = \prod_{p^v||n} (-1) = (-1)^{\omega(n)}$$

as claimed.