In my homework there is an exercise that asks to show the following result:
Let $(E,d)$ be a metric space. Show that a subset $A$ is dense in $E$ iff every open set in $(E,d)$ contains an element of $A$.
I want to show that this result is absurd. Firstly, I'm not a logician at all, but I want to go in this way. So suppose the above result is valid.
My attempt to translate this: Given $A,\mathcal{O}\subseteq E$
$B_1 :=[Q_1(A)] \iff B_2 :=[\forall \mathcal{O}(P_2(\mathcal{O})\rightarrow Q_2(\mathcal{O},A))]$
where
$Q_1(A):=$"$A$ is dense in $E$"
$P_2(\mathcal{O}):=$"$\mathcal{O}$ is open"
$Q_2(\mathcal{O},A):=$"$\mathcal{O} \cap A\neq \emptyset$"
Since $\emptyset$ is an open set in $E$ which does not contain any element of $A$, we have that $B_2$ will always be false. Then $\neg B_1 \iff \neg B_2$ must always hold (which is an equivalent to what was stated). But this implies that $A$ is not dense in $E$. As $A$ is an arbitrary subset of $E$, it means that no subset of $E$ is dense. However, clearly $E$ is dense in itself ($closure(E)=E$ in the space $(E,d)$). Contradiction.
My questions:
1) Is my translation into logical language wrong?
2) The negation $\neg B_1 \iff \neg B_2$ is equivalent to $\neg Q_1(A) \iff \exists \mathcal{O}(P_2(\mathcal{O})\land \neg Q_2(\mathcal{O},A))$?
3) In case of everything above were wrong, how would you proceed to prove the result is wrong using formal logic?
Thanks in advance!
The statement is wrong as written. You need not (and should not) translate the plain English into formal logic to see that: the empty set is open and does not contain an element of $A$ - whether or not $A$ is dense.
Now try to prove what I think the problem should ask: $A$ is dense if and only if every nonempty open set contains an element of $A$.