I'm having trouble approaching the following question: Is the following statement true or false, provide a proof or a counterexample.
If $h: A\rightarrow B, \ g: B\rightarrow C, \ f: B\rightarrow C$ are three functions and $ g\circ h=f\circ h $ then $ f = g$.
I have a feeling that it may be false but I am having trouble finding a counterexample.
Hint: If $f(a)=g(a)$ and $h(x)=a$ then ...