My problem is the following:
Let $G$ be a group with generating set $X$. We can look the Cayley-Graph $\Gamma(G,X)$ of $G$. Let $x\in G$. Then it holds: $d_{\Gamma}(v,xv)\leq 1$ for all $v\in G=\Gamma(G,X)$ if and only if $x\in X$. Why is that true?
I know that $d_{\Gamma}(v,vx)=d_X(v,vx)=|v^{-1}vx|_X=1$, where $d_X$ is the word metric on $G$ relative to X, iff $x$ lies in $X$.
I think its not very difficult, but I think I make a mistake in my thinking about the problem.
Thanks for help.
I am wondering if it is true. Take the example of $G = \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z} \ltimes \mathbb{Z}$ where the composition law is defined by $$(x,y)\cdot(x',y') = (x + x',(-1)^xy'+y).$$
Set $S = \{(0,1),(0,-1) ,(1,0)\}$, then for example $(1,-2) = (1,0)\cdot(0,2)$, but I don't think that $d((0,2),(1,-2)) \le 1$.