I'm having some trouble understanding the following proposition:
Let $\phi$ be the Euler's totient function. If $p$ is a prime number and $n,m \in \mathbb N$, then:
- $\phi(p)=p-1$
- $\phi(p^n) = p^n - p^{n - 1}$
- If $\gcd(m,n) = 1$, then $\phi(mn)=\phi(m)\phi(n)$
I can understand and prove proposition number (1), but as for (2) and (3) I'm not understanding intuitively what they are saying and why they are true. Can someone explain to me the intuition behind proposition (2) and (3) and show me the proof? Thanks
Let $(a,b)$ denote the gcd of $a$ and $b$, then
$$ \varphi(n)\triangleq\sum_{k\le n,(k,n)=1}1=\sum_{k\le n}\left\lfloor1\over(k,n)\right\rfloor $$
where $k$ runs from 1 to $n$. By the property that
$$ \sum_{d|n}\mu(d)=\left\lfloor\frac1n\right\rfloor $$
we obtain
$$ \begin{aligned} \varphi(n) &=\sum_{k\le n}\sum_{d|k,d|n}\mu(d)=\sum_{d|n}\mu(d)\sum_{k=jd\le n}1 \\ &=\sum_{d|n}\mu(d)\sum_{j\le n/d}1=\sum_{d|n}\mu(d)\cdot\frac nd \\ \end{aligned} $$
Because the $n$ and Mobius function $\mu(n)$ are multiplicative, we deduce that $\varphi(n)$ is multiplicative as well due to the property of Dirichlet convolution.
For prime power $p^n$ ($n\ge1$), we have
$$ \varphi(p^n)=\sum_{k=0}^n\mu(p^k)p^{n-k}=\mu(1)p^n+\mu(p)p^{n-1}=p^n-p^{n-1} $$