Let $ P=\begin{bmatrix} x & y & z\\ \end{bmatrix} $ and $ M=\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3\\ 3 & 1 & 2\\ 2 & 3 & 1\\ \end{bmatrix} $ and $ N=\frac{1}{2} \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 5 & 5\\ 5 & 2 & 5\\ 5 & 5 & 2\\ \end{bmatrix} $
Here $PMP'=PNP' \nRightarrow N=M$, why?
Only two things I can see, first that matrix $M$ and $N$ commute that is $MN=NM$ and second, they have the same eigen values.
Is this reason enough? What is the name for this kind of matrices?
I have also tried to premultiply by $P'$ as:
$$PMP'=PNP' \\ (P'P)MP'=(P'P)NP' \\ MP'=NP' \\ \text{(roughly assuming that inverse of $PP'$ exists)}$$
But since $MP'\ne NP'$ so what I had assumed that $(PP')^{-1}$ exists is wrong in general. Is this always the case? Because $P$ is a general row-matrix.
Yes, if $Z_{3 \times 3}=P_{3\times 1}.P_{1\times 3}$, then $\det|Z|=0$.