In Stewart/Tall's book on ANT they authors claim that if $ 0 \ne \mathfrak{a}$ is an ideal of $\mathfrak{O}_K$ the ring of integers of a number field $K$, then $N(\mathfrak{a}) \in \mathfrak{a}$. The proof they give is unclear to me, can someone please explain this?
2025-01-12 23:28:25.1736724505
Property of the norm of an ideal
144 Views Asked by Kevin Sheng https://math.techqa.club/user/kevin-sheng/detail AtRelated Questions in ALGEBRAIC-NUMBER-THEORY
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