I have this problem in my Discrete structures course
Show why : ∀x P(x) ∨∀x Q(x) is not logically equivalent to ∀x(P(x)∨Q(x)) . Please help solve this
2026-04-01 04:18:34.1775017114
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Propositional logic-Predicates
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A true statement:
For each integer $n$, $n$ is even or $n$ is odd.
Is the following statement true?
Either every integer is even, or every integer is odd.
The first is $\forall n\big(P(n)\lor Q(n)\big)$, where $P(n)$ is n is even and $Q(n)$ is n is odd, and the universe of discourse is the set of integers; the second is $\forall n\big(P(n)\big)\lor\forall n\big(Q(n)\big)$.
Let $P(x)$ denote the proposition that $x$ is even ($x \in \mathbb{Z}$) and $Q(x)$ denote the proposition that $x$ is odd. If the domain of discourse is $\mathbb{Z}$, then $$\forall x (P(x) \vee Q(x))$$ is true, but $\forall x P(x) \vee \forall x Q(x)$ is false.