Let $f:\mathbb{R}\mapsto \mathbb{R}$ be a function such that $$\lim_\limits{x\to 3}{\frac{f(x)+1}{f(x)-1}}=+\infty$$ with $f(x)\neq 1$ close to $x_0=3$.
Prove that:
a) $\lim_\limits{x\to 3}{f(x)}=1$ (also prove the limit's existence)
b) $f(x)>1$ close to $x_0=3$
I have seen that for the initial given limit to be positive infinity the denominator should be 0 so the limit of f(x) be 1, but I cannot formally express such an argument since the fraction could also be indefinite of the form $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$. For b, if we prove a, in order for the given limit to be positive infinity and not negative, we need the denominator to be positive near/close to $x_0=3$. Any hint?
For (a): Notice that $$ \frac{f(x) + 1}{f(x) - 1} = \frac{f(x) - 1 + 2}{f(x) - 1} = 1 + \frac{2}{f(x) - 1} \to \infty $$ if and only if $$ 2\left( \frac{f(x) + 1}{f(x) - 1} - 1 \right)^{-1} = f(x) - 1 \to 0. $$
For (b): There are already some good comments / answers: If we had $f(x) < 1$, we would have $$ \frac{1}{f(x) - 1} \to -\infty $$ and $$ \frac{f(x) + 1}{f(x) - 1} = 1 + \frac{2}{f(x) - 1} \to -\infty, $$ a contradiction.