Let $f(n + 1) = f(n) + nf(n -1)$ for $n \geq 2$ where $f(1) = 1$, $f(2) = 2$.
Prove that $f(n) \leq n!$. I'm struggling to understand the reasoning behind the algorithm.
Professor says:
(0) Show that the formula works for the initial conditions:
For $f(1):$ $$(1+1)! \leq 1! + 1 \cdot (1 - 1)!$$ $$2 \leq 2.$$ For $f(2):$ $$(2 + 1)! \leq 2! + 2 \cdot (2 - 1)!$$ $$6 \leq 4.$$ And this already fails for some reason. Nevermind. Let's get to the second step.
(1) Let $n \geq 2$. Suppose that $V(k): f(k) \leq k!$ where $k = n - 1$.
Then he does something. I tried to recreate it: $$f(n + 1) \leq n! + n \cdot (n - 1)!$$ $$f(n + 1) \leq n! + n!$$ $$f(n + 1) \leq 2n!.$$ I know that I should somehow get to $f(n + 1) \leq (n + 1)!$ but I just don't understand how and why. There is no way I'm getting from $2n!$ to $(n + 1)!$. Any hints?
$$f(1)=1\ge1!$$
$$f(2)=2\ge2!$$
$$f(3)=f(2)+2f(1)=4\not\ge3!$$
$$f(4)=f(3)+3f(2)=10\not\ge4!$$
The claim seems false for all following integers.
The modified claim is true, $2n!\le(n+1)!$ for $n\ge2$.