Within another answer to a question concerning a sums of the type
$$\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}^2$$
there was a simple indetity given which reduces this sum to a simple binomial coefficient, to be exact to
$$\binom{2n}{n}$$
However I tried to prove the formula
$$\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k}^2~=~\binom{2n}{n}$$
by induction and failed. Overall my attempt was to split up the sum for $n=m+1$ as follows
$$\sum_{k=0}^{m+1} \binom{m+1}{k}^2~=~\sum_{k=0}^m \binom{m+1}{k}^2 + \binom{m+1}{m+1}^2~=~(m+1)^2\sum_{k=0}^m \frac1{(m+1-k)^2}\binom{m}{k}^2 +1$$
I now stuck at reshaping this sum in the end and to substitute it by
$$\binom{2m}{m}$$
so I guess either induction is not the right way to approach to this proof or I made a critical error somewhere. I would be interested in a right proof and a explanation why my attempt did not worked out.
Thank you in advance.
I just figured out this formula is called Vandermondes Identity and it can be derived in way from the Binomial Theorem. But I am still interested in a proof maybe without this property.
EDIT: After posting, I saw the edit to the question asking for a proof without using the binomial theorem. Unfortunately, I don't have one, but I'll leave this answer posted since it is a correct proof.
Look at the coefficient of $x^n$ in the expansion of $(1+x)^{2n}.$ By the binomial theorem, we have $$(1+x)^{2n} = \sum^{2n}_{k=0} \binom{2n}{k} x^k$$ and thus the coefficient of $x^n$ is $\binom{2n}n$. On the other hand, we have $$(1+x)^{2n} = \big((1+x)^n\big)^2 = \left(\sum^n_{\ell=0} \binom{n}\ell x^\ell \right)^2.$$ When we square this sum, the terms that produce $x^n$ are those of the form $x^\ell\cdot x^{n-\ell}$ and the corresponding coefficient is $\binom n \ell \binom{n}{n-\ell}$. But $\binom n \ell = \binom{n}{n-\ell}$, so these coefficients are $\binom{n}\ell^2$. Since one of these occur for each $\ell=0,\ldots,n$, we see that the whole coefficient of $x^n$ is $\sum^n_{\ell=0} \binom{n}{\ell}^2$ and thus $$\binom{2n}n = \sum^n_{\ell=0} \binom n \ell^2.$$