Suppose if it is rational:
$9 ^ {\frac {1} {8}} = {\frac {m} {n}}$
I know what to do with relative primes. M and N are the relative primes.
$(n \times 9 ^ {\frac {1} {8}}) = m $
$(n \times 9 ^ {\frac {1} {8}}) ^ 8= m ^ 8 $
$n ^ 8 \times 9= m ^ 8 $
$n ^ 8 \times 3 ^2= m ^ 8$
I assume that M will be bigger than N. For example, $m ^ 8 = 3^8 \times 5^8 \times 7^8. $
I know it will make a contradiction so therefore it is irrational. My question to myself is "does it makes sense to see a proof that it is not rational?"
I just want to make clear contradiction but it is hard for me to explain. Can you help me? Thank you!
For bigger $a, b$ than in @Doug's counterexample, write: $(a+b+1) = (\frac{m}{n})^{a+b}.$
Rearranging terms, get,
$$m^{a+b} = n^{a+b}(a+b+1).$$
Since $m, n$ are relatively prime, any prime divisor of $a+b+1$ has to appear to $a+b$-th power. The smallest prime divisor possible is $2,$ but $2^{a+b} > a+b+1,$ UNLESS $a+b=1.$