I want to prove that the following sequence is monotonously decreasing:
$A_k = \sum\limits_{n=2k}^{3k}\binom{3k}{n}\cdot{(\frac{60}{100})}^n\cdot{(\frac{40}{100})}^{3k-n}$
I think it should be pretty easy to do so by induction:
$A_1 = \binom{3}{2}\cdot{(\frac{60}{100})}^2\cdot{(\frac{40}{100})}^1+\binom{3}{3}\cdot{(\frac{60}{100})}^3\cdot{(\frac{40}{100})}^0 = 0.648$
$A_2 = \binom{6}{4}\cdot{(\frac{60}{100})}^4\cdot{(\frac{40}{100})}^2+\binom{6}{5}\cdot{(\frac{60}{100})}^5\cdot{(\frac{40}{100})}^1+\binom{6}{6}\cdot{(\frac{60}{100})}^6\cdot{(\frac{40}{100})}^0 = 0.54432$
Let's assume that $A_{k} > A_{k-1}$
Let's prove that $A_{k+1} > A_{k}$
So how do I go about with that? Or is there another way?
This isn't rigorous, and it may in fact be what motivates the question, but you can interpret the $A_k$'s as the probability that a biased coin that lands Heads $60\%$ of the time and Tails $40\%$ of the time will come up Heads at least two thirds of the time when tossed $3k$ times. Since $60\%$ is less than $2/3=66.666...\%$, you can expect this to become less and less likely as $k$ gets larger.