Let $x_1 = (44)^{1/2}$ and $x_{n+1} = (3x_n + 1)^{1/2}$ for $n\geq 1$.
Prove that $x_n$ is irrational for every $n\geq 1$.
I really have no idea how to proceed, I couldn't even find a nice closed form. I know $(44)^{1/2}$ is irrational, but what should I do. I would like a sketch of the proof and hints are greatly appreciated.
Assume that for some $n$, $x_n$ is rational. We know that $x_n=(3x_{n-1}+1)^{1/2}$. By algebra we have that $\frac{1}{3}(x^2_n-1)=x_{n-1}$ and so we have that $x_{n-1}$ is also rational.
By iterating this argument $n-1$ times we find out that $x_1$ is rational. However, you’ve already noted this isn’t true. Thus $x_n$ couldn’t have been rational. Since this applies for any $n$, there is no value of the sequence that is rational.
To specifically phrase this as being induction, the base case is just noting that $44$ isn’t a perfect square. Now we need to prove the inductive hypothesis
This statement is logically equivalent to its contrapositive
This contrapositive version is proven by my first paragraph, so since the contrapositive is true the original statement is true. Therefore by induction the entire sequence is irrational.