I'm completely confused by uniform convergence, but I put together the following proof just based on my other questions here and examples I read online.
Discussion: Let $\epsilon \gt 0$
We want to find $N$ so that for all $x$ in $[0,1]$ and $n \gt N$, $\left|f_n(x)-f(x)\right|=\left|\frac{x^n}{\sqrt{3n}}-0\right|\lt \epsilon$
$\left|\frac{x^n}{\sqrt{3n}}\right|\le\frac{1}{\sqrt{3n}}\le\frac{1}{\sqrt{3N}}\lt\epsilon$ if $\frac{1}{3\epsilon^2}\lt N$
Proof:
Give $\epsilon \gt 0$, let $N=\frac{1}{3\epsilon^2}$. Then for all $x$ in $[0,1]$ and $n \gt N$, $\left|f_n(x)-f(x)\right|=\left|\frac{x^n}{\sqrt{3n}}-0\right|\le\frac{1}{\sqrt{3n}}\le\frac{1}{\sqrt{3N}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\frac{1}{3\epsilon^2}}}=\epsilon$
I'm completely confused by this entire subject, I've been reading the definition over for the last 3 hours and I just do not understand what is going on.
Copper.hat has the answer, but you are confused, it seems, about the significance of uniformly convergent.
Try your same sort of proof on a different problem on $[0,1]$, namely, $$ f_n(x) = \frac{x^n}{(x-\frac12)^2\sqrt{3n}} $$ again with $f(x) = 0$ as the function they converge to.
In your original problem, if I give you $\epsilon$ you can come back to me with an $N$ such that whenever $n>N$, $|f_n(x)| < \epsilon$ for all $x \in [0,1]$.
In the new problem, for any given $x$ and $\epsilon$ you can find an $N$ such that whenever $n>N$, $|f_n(x)| < \epsilon$ for that $x$ -- but the $N$ you need to give me depends on the value of $x$ I gave you. This sequence of functions is therefore not uniformly convergent.