Explain or prove why $f(x)=\ln(x)$ is not uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
By definition $f$ is uniformly continuous if for all $\varepsilon >0$, there exists a $\delta > 0$ such that when $|x-y|< \delta$ we get $|f(x)-f(y)| < \varepsilon$.
I am not sure where to start. Any suggestions?
Take for example
$$\begin{cases}x_n:=\frac1n\in(0,\infty)\\{}\\y_n:=\frac2n\in(0,\infty)\end{cases}\implies\left|\frac1n-\frac2n\right|=\frac1n\xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}0$$
yet
$$\left|\log\frac1n-\log\frac2n\right|=\log2\rlap{\;\;\;\;/}\xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}0\implies f(x)$$
can't be uniformly continuous in $\;(0,\infty)\;$ .