I am asked to prove the result for cyclotomic polynomials that if a prime $p$ divides $n$, then $\Phi_{np}(t) = \Phi_n(t^p)$
By partitioning the set of factors of $n$ into sets:
$\{d\in \mathbb N \mid d\mid x, \; p \nmid d\} = X,\; pX, \dots, p^kX$ where $p^k \mid x, \; p^{k+1} \nmid x$
And by using an induction argument, I have reduced the equation to:
$$\Phi_{np}(t)\prod_{d\in X}\Phi_{d}(t)\Phi_{pd}(t) = \Phi_n(t^p)\prod_{d \in X} \Phi_d(t^p)$$
This then leads me to believe $$\prod_{d\in X}\Phi_{d}(t)\Phi_{pd}(t) = \prod_{d \in X} \Phi_d(t^p)$$
And more specifically:
$$\Phi_d(t)\Phi_{pd}(t) = \Phi_d(t^p)\;\; \forall d\in \mathbb N, p\nmid d$$
However, I am unsure how to prove either of these last two results. I am also unsure if there is perhaps a better way to show the main result I am trying to achieve, since even with this inductive argument I'm not too sure what the base case should be.
Any help would be appreciated, thank you.
Your last claim is true:
This follows directly from $\Phi_n(x^m)= \displaystyle\prod_{d\mid m} \Phi_{dn}(x)$ when $\gcd(m,n)=1$. See a proof here.
Just set $n=d$ and $m=p$.