Prove $\frac{1}{x \log(x)}$ is not Lebesgue integrable on $[2, \infty]$

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Not sure how to proceed on this one. The function is clearly measurable so the issue has to be divergence of the integral. However any comparison seems to fail. Can someone help me out here?

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Not to totally give it away, but take the derivative of $\log( \log(x))$