Not sure how to proceed on this one. The function is clearly measurable so the issue has to be divergence of the integral. However any comparison seems to fail. Can someone help me out here?
2026-04-04 20:25:04.1775334304
Prove $\frac{1}{x \log(x)}$ is not Lebesgue integrable on $[2, \infty]$
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Not to totally give it away, but take the derivative of $\log( \log(x))$