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Bumbble Commhttps://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail
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The problem:
Numbers $a$, $b$, and $c$ are such, that $\frac{a - b}{a + b} + \frac{b - c}{b + c} + \frac{c - a}{c + a} = 0$. Prove that one of the terms is equal to $0$.
The textbook I'm using provides a hint, that unfortunately haven't brought me any closer to the solution yet:
Well, if $\ a+b\neq 0;\ b+c\neq 0;\ c+a\neq 0,$ then both sides of the above equation exist. Moreover, we may multiply both sides of the equation by $(a + b)(b + c)(c + a)$ without losing solutions (we would have lost solutions if we multiplied by $0,$ but $(a + b)(b + c)(c + a)\neq 0$), to get:
Expanding the LHS and RHS give the same expression (I leave this as an exercise), and therefore "we're all good." However, this isn't a proof of the proposition, because we haven't started from known premises and arrived at the result of the proof as a conclusion. We have started assuming the proof and have arrived at an equation which we know is true. But now we have an idea of how to write a formal proof of the above proposition.
Expanding and simplifying the expression $(a-b)(b+c)(c+a) + (b-c)(a+b)(c+a) + (c-a)(a+b)(b+c)$ gives us [exercise to reader]. Expanding and simplifying the expression $-(a - b)(b - c)(c - a) $ gives us [exercise to reader]. We see that these two simplified expressions are equal/equivalent. It follows that
Paraquoting,
Scrap work:
Well, if $\ a+b\neq 0;\ b+c\neq 0;\ c+a\neq 0,$ then both sides of the above equation exist. Moreover, we may multiply both sides of the equation by $(a + b)(b + c)(c + a)$ without losing solutions (we would have lost solutions if we multiplied by $0,$ but $(a + b)(b + c)(c + a)\neq 0$), to get:
$$ (a-b)(b+c)(c+a) + (b-c)(a+b)(c+a) + (c-a)(a+b)(b+c) = -(a - b)(b - c)(c - a). $$
Expanding the LHS and RHS give the same expression (I leave this as an exercise), and therefore "we're all good." However, this isn't a proof of the proposition, because we haven't started from known premises and arrived at the result of the proof as a conclusion. We have started assuming the proof and have arrived at an equation which we know is true. But now we have an idea of how to write a formal proof of the above proposition.
$$$$
Formal proof of above proposition:
Suppose $a,b,c\in\mathbb{R}\ $ and $\ a+b\neq 0;\ b+c\neq 0;\ c+a\neq 0.$
Expanding and simplifying the expression $(a-b)(b+c)(c+a) + (b-c)(a+b)(c+a) + (c-a)(a+b)(b+c)$ gives us [exercise to reader]. Expanding and simplifying the expression $-(a - b)(b - c)(c - a) $ gives us [exercise to reader]. We see that these two simplified expressions are equal/equivalent. It follows that
$$ (a-b)(b+c)(c+a) + (b-c)(a+b)(c+a) + (c-a)(a+b)(b+c) \equiv -(a - b)(b - c)(c - a). \quad (*)$$
Since $\ a+b\neq 0;\ b+c\neq 0;\ c+a\neq 0,$ we may divide both sides of $(*)$ through by $(a+b),$ then $(b+c),$ then $(c+a).$ This gives:
$$\frac{a - b}{a + b} + \frac{b - c}{b + c} + \frac{c - a}{c + a} \equiv -\frac{(a - b)(b - c)(c - a)}{(a + b)(b + c)(c + a)},$$
and the proposition has been proven.