I have to prove the following inequality:
$$\forall n,m \in \mathbb{N},i\in\mathbb{N_0}:n<m \implies \frac1{n^i}\binom{n}i \leq\frac1{m^i}\binom{m}i $$
I used this fact to prove an other inequality, without proving this one first, but now I am stuck. Is induction the way to do this?
Your inequality is equivalent to
$$m^i\binom{n}i\le n^i\binom{m}i\;,$$
which can be written
$$\frac{m^in^{\underline i}}{i!}\le\frac{n^im^{\underline i}}{i!}$$
and hence is equivalent to
$$m^in^{\underline i}\le n^im^{\underline i}\;.$$
Here $x^{\underline k}=x(x-1)\ldots(x-k+1)$ is a falling factorial. This is clearly true for $i>n$, since the lefthand side is then $0$, and the righthand side is always non-negative. For $i\le n$ it is equivalent to
$$\left(\frac{m}n\right)^i\le\prod_{k=0}^{i-1}\frac{m-k}{n-k}\;,\tag{1}$$
which is clearly true for $i=0$, since both sides are $1$. Finally, it’s easily verified that
$$\frac{m-k}{n-k}\ge\frac{m}n$$
for $0\le k<n$, which establishes $(1)$ for $1\le i\le n$.